1. The national organization that recognizes breeds of rabbits is:

The Society for Animal Science

The American Rabbit Breeders Association *

The Indiana Rabbit Breeders Association

The United States Department of Agriculture

The American Association for Laboratory Animal Science

2. Rabbits that are over ___________ pounds should be housed on solid bottom floors.

5

8

10

12*

15

3. Temperatures in excess of ____________ ⁰ Fahrenheit will impair the semen quality of most rabbit bucks.

70

75

80*

90

100

28. Rabbit breeders would most likely use _______________ for producing research rabbits.

Inbreeding *

Hybrid breeding

Cross breeding

Outbreeding

None of the above

29. When housing rabbits, air should be exhausted out of the barn at:

Highest point of the barn, with prevailing winds *

Lowest point of the barn, against prevailing winds

Highest point of the barn, against prevailing winds

Lowest point of the barn, with prevailing winds

Highest point of the barn, cross-wise to prevailing winds

 

30. The rabbit breed that is displayed is:

55. The rabbit breed that is displayed is:

New Zealand White

Dutch Belted

English Lop *

Netherland Dwarf

Flemish Giant

56. The rabbit breed that is displayed is:

French Angora

English Lop

Harlequin

Hoto

Himalayan *

57. The body type of this rabbit is:

Commercial

Mandolin

Full Arched

Compact

Cylindrical *

Station #28

82. The body type of this rabbit is:

Commercial

Mandolin *

Full Arched

Compact

Cylindrical

 

83. Many rabbits are pre-disposed to respiratory disease due to:

Breed type

Genetics

Poor handling

Inadequate ventilation *

Inadequate veterinary care

84. Endoparasites are parasites of rabbits (among many animals) that live:

In the barn

In the rabbit hutch

In the rabbit *

Outside the rabbit

On the rabbit

Station #37

109. Rabbits are the intermediate host for:

Tapeworms *

Hookworms

Inchworms

Whipworms

Earthworms

110. The "peek a boo" worm usually attaches itself to the rabbit in the area of:

The anal region

The ears

The chin *

The hocks

The forehead

111. Psoroptes Cuniculi is an arthropod which attacks the rabbit in the area of:

The rear hocks

The chin

The head

The abdomen

The ears *

 

Station #46

136. Rabbit feed pellets should generally be:

Long and wide in diameter

Long and narrow in diameter

Short and wide in diameter

Short and narrow in diameter *

None of the above

137. To prevent overfeeding, breeders should feed rabbits the amount of feed that they will routinely consume in:

10 minutes

15 minutes

20 minutes *

60 minutes

90 minutes

138. Rabbits being nocturnal animals should be fed:

First thing in the morning

Mid-morning

Noon

Mid-Afternoon

Evening *

Station #2

Propane and acetate

Air and water

CO₂ and CH₄*

Protein and energy

Calcium and phosphorus

Air*

Protein

Energy

Minerals

Vitamins

 

Station #11

Beef animals with light round patches of hair missing likely have

Warts

Acidosis

Ringworm*

Bloat

Bad attitude

The term "grain overload" refers to beef animals that are likely suffering from

Station #20

Which of the following measurements would not be used to determine beef yield grade?

Jump Muscle

Thigh

Round

Rib eye*

Tongue

Size of ribeye

Fat thickness

Body condition

Marbling*

Color

 

 

Station #29

At what age would you like a beef heifer to have her first calf?

6 months

3 years

1 year

2 years*

15 months

In what weight range would you like a beef steer to finish?

800 - 900 lbs.

1150 - 1250 lbs.*

1400 - 1500 lbs.

1000 - 1100 lbs.

1300 - 1400 lbs.

What is the gestation length of a beef cow?

Station #38

At about what age are beef calves weaned?

300 - 360 days

60 - 90 days*

150 - 200 days

continuous

12 months

Pulling calves

Giving growth stimulants*

Vaccinating

Deworming

Clipping hair

 

Station #47

139. This device is used for _______ in beef cattle.

Deworming

Dehorning*

Taking temperature

Giving pills

AI

This device would be used for _________ in beef cattle.

Artificial insemination*

Dehorning

Implanting

Giving pills

Can't be used

This instrument would be used for ________ in beef cattle.

Giving pills

Vaccinating*

Dehorning

Taking temperature

AI

Station #3

7. What temperature settings are maintained for incubation of chicken eggs at the Purdue Poultry Center?

8. Why is it essential to maintain sterile conditions in the hatchery?

9. What are the typical number of incubation days necessary for hatching chickens?

21 *

28

38

41-42

66

Station #12

What are the typical number of incubation days necessary for hatching turkey poults?

35. The broiler will attain a market weight of _______ pounds at about 42 days of age.

a. 3

b. 6*

c. 12

d. 14

e. 21

36. What is the typical feed conversion ratio for a broiler chicken?

a. 1.9 pounds of feed for every pound of gain*

b. 2.5 pounds of feed for every pound of gain

c. 3.0 pounds of feed for every pound of gain

d. 3.2 pounds of feed for every pound of gain

e. 6.2 pounds of feed for every pound of gain

Station #21

61. What are the typical number of incubation days necessary for hatching ducks?

a. 21

b. 28*

c. 38

d. 41-42

e. 66

62. What is the length of time (hours) required for a hen to produce one egg?

a. 12

b. 18

c. 20

d. 25*

e. 36

63. What is the typical productive life (months) of the commercial laying hen?

a. 4-5

b. 5-7

c. 9-11*

d. 13-15

e. 16-20

Station #30

88. What are the typical number of incubation days necessary for hatching the ostrich?

a. 21

b. 28

c. 38

d. 41-42*

e. 66

89. How is the sex of newborn chicks determined?

a. by eye color

b. examining left toe structure

c. look at the wing feather*

d. length of tail feathers

e. thickness of breast muscle when examined in a bright light

90. What temperatures are maintained for chicks during the first several days after hatching?

a. 75-85 F

b. 80-84 F

c. 80-100 F

d. 90-95 F*

e. 100-110 F

Station #39

115. "Spent" hens are processed for:

a. lunches at prisons

b. high school lunches

c. soup*

d. overseas shipment

e. lunches for high school principals

116. How many eggs would be produced per hen in a 52 week production period?

a. 100

b. 200

c. 200-220

d. 265-280*

e. 310-365

117. What difference is there between white and brown eggs?

a. white eggs have a higher protein concentration

b. brown eggs take longer to incubate

c. white eggs have a higher lipid content

d. only color*

e. brown eggs always produce female chicks upon incubation

Station #48

142. What is the normal body temperature of the chicken?

a. 20 C

b. 25 C

c. 41 C*

d. 49 C

e. 52 C

143. The chicken egg shell is mainly made of

a. lipids

b. protein

c. calcium*

d. phosphorus

e. cholride

144. In chickens, pneumatic bones are

a. only found in the head region

b. used to make eggs

c. only found in the breast bone (keel)

d. filled with blood

e. filled with air*

Station #4

10. One of the control measures for CAE in dairy goats is

Treat all goats in the herd with penicillin

Only feed pasteurized colostrum*

Feed only hay and water to the herd for one month

Install a water softener for the goat water supply

Keep a donkey with the goats

11. Which worm is most important in dairy goats?

Round worm

Square worm

Monkey Puzzle worm

Barber Pole Worm*

Leg Worm

12. Which adjective below means "goat"?

a. bovine

b. ovine

c. porcine

d. caprine*

e. canine

Station #13

37. Which breed of goat doesn’t have ears?

Anglo-Nubian

Saanen

Mountain Goat

Gloucester Old Spot

LaMancha*

38. Which is the most important for foot health in goats?

Regular foot-trimming*

Walk goats on abrasive surface

Make sure the goats are always on soft bedding

Control worms in the soil

Soak feet in hot water once a week

39. The jaw bone in goats is also called the

a. foramen

b. ulna

c. mandible*

d. phalanx

e. jugular

Station #22

64. The difference between a goat and sheep is

Sheep are more intelligent

Goats always have hair, sheep always have wool

Sheep have three stomachs, goats have five

Goats are pregnant for 5 months, sheep for only 3 months

Goats are browsers, sheep are grazers*

65. The organ in the goat which produces (and releases) ova is the

a. Uterus

b. Oviduct

c. Liver

d. Ovary*

e. Endometrium

66. The goat placenta attaches to uterine structures called

a. Caruncles*

b. Pyloric points

c. Serosa

d. Attachment points

e. Terminal bars

Station #31

91. The thigh bone in goats can also be called the

a. radius

b. femur*

c. metacarpal

d. ulna

e. humerus

92. The organ in the goat that produces bile is the

a. kidney

b. brain

c. liver*

d. spleen

e. thyroid gland

93. The organ in the goat that contains nephrons is the

a. liver

b. brain

c. stomach

d. kidney*

e. small intestine

Station #40

118. Female goats have _____ mammary glands.

a. one

b. two*

c. three

d. four

e. six or eight

119. The estrous cycle in goats is about _____ days in length.

a. 12

b. 16

c. 20*

d. 26

e. 36-38

120. The hormone that causes milk letdown in goats is

a. estrogen

b. prolactin

c. oxytocin*

d. insulin

e. growth hormone (GH)

Station #49

145. The shoulder blade in goats can also be called the

a. carpus

b. scapula*

c. humerus

d. fossa

e. pastern

146. In goats, the primary pacemaker of the heart is called the

a. fossa

b. SA node*

c. AV node

d. foramen

e. primary node

147. In goats, the organs that contain alveoli are

a. kidney and liver

b. heart and lung

c. lung and kidney

d. lung and mammary gland*

e. spleen and rumen

Station #5

13. Which forage is a legume?

A. Orchardgrass

B. Fescue

C. Bluegrass

D. Alfalfa*

E. Flax

14. Which forage is associated with "summer slump" or an endophyte toxicity in sheep?

A. Fescue*

B. Bluegrass

C. Orchardgrass

D. Alfalfa

E. Oats

15. Which feed is used to supply energy to lambs?

A. Limestone

B. Soybean meal

C. Corn*

D. Flax

E. Vitamin D

Station #14

40. Pregnancy detection in ewes is usually determined with which technology?

A. Ultrasound*

B. Laprascopic/manual techniques

C. X-ray films

D. Insemination detector

E. Hormone assay of urine

41. Which of the following is not one of the four main wholesale cuts from a lamb carcass?

A. Leg

B. Rack

C. Shoulder

D. Neck*

E. None of the above

42. What factor is the primary determinant of the USDA Yield Grade for sheep?

A. Leg score

B. Fat thickness*

C. Break joint

D. Ribeye size

E. Neck score

Station #23

67. What are some basic types of production records used to select sheep?

A. Type of birth*

B. Show ring placing of sire

C. Breed

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

68. A subcutaneous injection for a lamb would be given where?

A. In the muscle

B. In the mouth

C. Under the skin*

D. Rectally

E. Per os

69. Footrot in sheep is caused by?

A. Virus

B. Bacteria*

C. Nutritional disorder

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Station #32

94. Sheep feet are trimmed to?

A. Prevent footrot

B. Make them look better

C. Help the sheep walk easier

D. All of the above*

E. None of the above

95. Flushing is used in sheep to?

A. Treat a disease

B. Improve reproductive performance*

C. Get them ready for the fair

D. Prepare for shearing

E. Prepare for selling

96. When moving or showing sheep, you should be on what side of the animal?

A. Left*

B. Right

C. Rear

D. Underneath

E. In front of

Station #41

121. Which of the following is not one of the four compartments of a sheep stomach?

A. Rumen

B. Omasum

C. Abomasum

D. Colon*

E. Reticulum

122. Urinary calculi in lambs is caused by?

A. Too much protein

B. Not enough calcium*

C. Too little exercise

D. Too much salt

E. Too much fat

123. What is an average range for a lamb’s carcass dressing percent?

A. 38 to 42%

B. 48 to 52%*

C. 58 to 62%

D. 68 to 72%

E. 75 to 100%

Station #50

148. What adjective refers to "sheep"?

A. Porcine

B. Ovine*

C. Bovine

D. Equine

E. Caprine

149. What organ in the sheep produces insulin?

A. Liver

B. Pituitary Gland

C. Mammary Gland

D. Pancreas*

E. Keel Gland

150. What gland in the sheep produces growth hormone?

A. Mammary Gland

B. Anterior Pituitary Gland*

C. Posterior Pituitary Gland

D. Hypothalamus

E. Keel Gland

Station #6

16. Using the "Universal Ear Notching System", which of the following correctly identifies this pig?

a. 3-4

b. 22-14*

c. 58-14

d. 14-22

22-5

17. Which of the following swine retail cuts has the highest retail value?

ham

picnic

sirloin tip

loin*

bacon

18. The following images are produced from an ultra-sound machine, which image indicates a pregnant sow?

Station #15

43. When administering an iron injection to a baby pig, which needle would you use?

A

B

C

D

E*

44. This feed ingredient will account for 75-85% of a swine diet and is used as the main source of energy.

peanut meal

soybean meal

special K

corn*

wheat meal

45. This feedstuff consists of many different minerals that are necessary for normal body functions in pigs.

Station #24

70. Where on "Wayne" the pig would you administer an iron injection? (select from the lettered areas)

A

B

C*

D

E

71. What would this instrument be used for in swine production?

clipping teeth

castrating

tail docking

hoof trimming

ear-notching*

72. Which is the first limiting amino acid in a swine ration consisting primarily of corn grain and soybean meal?

Station #33

97. What area (in square inches) does each of the dots on this loin-eye grid represent?

0.10

0.05*

0.25

0.50

1.00

98. In this bottle of boar semen (which is equal to one inseminating dose), approximately how many sperm are present?

800,000

1 X 10⁶

2.5 X 10⁶

4 X 10^9*

8 X 10¹⁴

 

99. What does PSE stand for (when talking about swine meat quality)?

Station #42

124. What is the minimum withdrawal time (in swine) for penicillin G procaine?

24 hours

48 hours

5 days

7 days*

zero withdrawal time

125. Which of the following is not a Pork Quality characteristic?

carcass yield*

texture of lean

color of lean

marbling

firmness of fat & lean

126. What is this instrument used for in swine production?

Station #7

19. Which adjective indicates "horse"?

a. ovine

b. porcine

c. canine

d. feline

e. equine*

20. Select the incorrect statement on horse reproduction.

a. Mares have two ovaries

b. Mares are termed long-day breeders

c. Twins are common in horses*

d. The gestation length in horses is approx. 342 days

e. The stallion has two testes

21. Select the incorrect statement on horse anatomy.

a. The horse does not have a rumen

b. The horse does have a gall bladder*

c. The horse does not have an abomasum

d. The coffin bone is located within the horse’s foot

e. The horse does have a liver

Station #16

46. What test do we use to detect antibodies against Equine Infectious Anemia in horses?

a. Influenza

b. ELISA

c. HYPP

d. EPM

e. Coggins*

47. What is the name of the barn hosting the Purdue horse show team?

a. AGAPE

b. Foxton*

c. Breaking New Ground

d. CHAPS Corral

e. IHSA

48. What is the most preferred body condition score for horses?

a. 1

b. 3

c. 5*

d. 7

e. 10

Station #25

73. Which of the following genotypes represents a carrier for hyperkalemic periodic paralysis in horses?

a. hh

b. HN

c. HH

d. nn

e. Hh*

74. What is the maximal working heart rate for horses?

a. 12

b. 42

c. 78

d. 150

e. 240*

75. What is the common name for this bone in horses?

a. knee

b. cannon*

c. elbow

d. pastern

e. fetlock

Station #34

100. How many metacarpals are in this skeletal sample from a horse?

a. 4

b. 3*

c. 2

d. 1

e. 0

101. What unsoundness does this horse bone demonstrate?

a. laminitis

b. bowed tendon

c. carpal chips

d. fractured sesamoids

e. splint*

102. What form of animal well-being concern is most common and is demonstrated in this picture of a horse?

a. abuse

b. neglect*

c. over-training

d. distemper

e. laminitis

Station #43

127. What is the name of the Purdue University therapeutic horseback riding program?

AGAPE

Foxton

Breaking New Ground

CHAPS*

IHSA

128. What is the possible genotype of the horse pictured?

LL

BB

bb*

Gg

bl

129. What is the largest expense of managing horses?

tack

feed*

bedding

utilities

health care (vet bills, etc.)

Station #8

22. What do the letters DHIA stand for?

Dairy Health Insurance Association

Dairy Herds In Action

Dairy Herd Improvement Association*

Dairy Health Improvement Acadamy

Daily Herd Improvement Advantage

23. Who does the Creamery License Division Benefit?

Dairy Producers

Dairy Processors

Milk Haulers

Consumers

All of the above*

24. Identify this item:

Bloat Punch

Hoof Knife*

Hay bale cutter

Dehorning knife

None of the above

Station #17

49. Identify this item:

        California Mastitis Test Paddle*

4 compartment spoon for a ruminant urine test

Paddle to stir cheese

"Once under" teat dipper (newer model-post 1990)

4 cup milk sample holder for hormone assays

50. In regard to dairy genetics, what does PTA stand for:

Preferential Treatment Accelerator

Predicted Transmitting Ability*

Protein Transfer Ability

Progeny Testing Academy

Production Type Ability

51. Identify this plant:

Soybean

Orchard grass

Alfalfa*

Red Clover

Sudan Grass

Station #26

76. Identify this feed:

Grass Silage

Alfalfa Silage

High Moisture Corn

Whole Cotton Seed

Corn Silage*

77. With regard to a rear leg side view (dairy cattle), a score of 45 points means the cow is:

Posty

strait legged

Intermediate

Extremely sickled*

lame

78. What is the most important part of a milking routine for dairy cattle?

Keep the milking parlor free of startling noises

Dip teats after milking

Put the milker on clean, dry teats*

Assure smooth cow flow

Wipe with individual paper towels

Station #35

103. What is the main reason Solar or Greenhouse barns have become more popular for dairy housing?

They are attractive

Better ventilation

Improved animal health

They cost less to build*

The plastic cover lasts longer than steel

104. What are the estimated annual losses per dairy cow due to mastitis?

$7.36

$50.25

$121.00

$184.40*

$266.69

105. Which traits are included in the Net Merit Index for dairy cattle?

milk, fat, protein, mastitis, productive life*

milk and calving difficulty

milk and type

fat and protein

milk fat protein, calving difficulty, and productive life

Station #44

130. What is the name of the Purdue University Dairy Web Page?

Purdue Dairy Page

BOILER Barnyard

Dairy@Purdue*

Purdue Dairying

None of the above

131. What is a TMR?

Total Meal Ration

Total Mixed Ration*

        Total Mineral Ratio

        Tub Mixer Ration

        None of the above

132. What does a plate cooler do on a dairy farm?

        Cools plates

        Cools milk before it goes on the truck

        Sterilizes milk before it enters the bulk tank

        Cools milk before it enters the bulk tank*

        c & d above (if installed correctly)

Station #9

280

320 *

460

600

850

$10

$20

$60 *

$120

$200

Station #18

Plastic

Wire

Polyester

All the above *

None of the above

2 ft.

4 ft. *

6 ft.

8 ft.

10 ft.

Station #27

Anal fin

Dorsal fin *

Pelvic fin

Adipose fin

Caudal fin

pH

Ammonia

Oxygen *

Temperature

Nitrite

Station #36

Corn flakes

Brine shrimp larvae *

Lettuce

Trout pellets

Tuna fish

2^oF *

6 ^oF

12 ^oF

15 ^oF

20 ^oF

Station #45

To add oxygen

To supply food for the fish

To oxidize iron

To produce algae

To oxidize ammonia *

Remove chlorine

Add ammonia

Remove odors

Add oxygen *

Create currents

Early morning

Noon

Late afternoon *

Right after a large feeding

When the dorsal fin turns bright yellow.